Doesanyone know about dividing fractions by the integer and then reducing to simplest form? Ha Ha - not much to ask is it!

[MaureenMLove]

So, dd had had a melt down tonight, having just discovered homework that needs to be in tomorrow! She gets up early enough to have time, but I need to get it clear in my head, in cae she needs help. She might know, but I need to know ahead of time, in case she needs guidance. So,

e.g. 1/2 divided by 5 = 1/10

how do I explain it?

the next one is 4/5 divided by 8 = is it
8 divided by 4 = 3
5 x 8 = 40
therefore the answer is 3/40?

Thats completely of the mark isn't it!

erm.... 4/5 /8... pants I did this recently (ish) Let me think...

Oh FGS why didn't you just ring and ask me?

PMSL

I didn't even understand the question!

God, there's no hope is there really? I obviously mean 8 divided by 4 is 2 and not 3!

Is the answer 1/10 or am I mad?

i.e 4/(5x8)=4/40=1/10

multiply denominator (bottom half of fraction) by the integer

so - 4/5 divided by 8 =
4/5 x 8 =

4/40 =

1/10

I was right ! I was right!

we agree snice (as does DH and he has a maths degree!)

I make it 37/40

Would you make it 4/5 divided by 1/8.... then you errr... do something to it, hang on

1/10

oh, clever people answered!

The first time I've managed to answer one of these questions ever. (Pathetically proud emotion)

4/5 divided by 8 is

4/5 x 1/8

=4x1/5x8

=4/40

=1/10

yeah yeah, 1/10 , that's what I got, yeah

You turn the 8 upside down and multiply i.e 4/5 x 1/8 = 1/10

Split a circle in half

then split each half into 5 bits .... then you can see that you have 1/10 of a whole.

Then do a few more like 1/2 divided by 3 = 1/6

1/7 divided by 3 = 1/21

to show that you multiply the bottom numbers...

so 4/5 divided by 8 is 4/40 which is the same as 1/10

oh - you all beat me to it!!

OK, so basically you do nothing with the top and times the bottom, then reduce to simplest form? Cool, got it, thanks. (You got it Kbear! )

4/5 divided 8

4 divided by 8

• -

5 1

So turn the 8 over 1 the other way around so you get

4 1

• TIMES (now not divide ) -

5 8

so 4 x 1 = 4 and 5 X 8 = 40 so you now have 4

40 which cancels down to 1

10.So your answer is 1 tenth.
Hope this helps x

ah, but worz - you show how to get your head round that - is clear to me why now!

So, the next one is 2/7 divided by 16 so the answer is......... 1/56? Surely not! It can't be that easy!

Yeah, got it ages ago, piece of cake.

Did someone mention cake???

that's maths teachers for you - always want to return to cutting caked up!

Let me let me let me!