Question to people who know about genetics

[emkana]

I understand that some of the skeletal dysplasia have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, but with a large proportion of cases being spontaneous mutations. (achondroplasia for example)

When you have an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, is there also the possibility that some cases are due to spontaneous mutations?

bump

Oh and please correct me if I've said all this all wrong.

Yes, but not as much. If it's recessive there has to be a mutation on both sides, as you know, so whilst it is vanishingly unlikely that there would be two spontaneous mutations, there could be one and then the other person happens to be a carrier. Unlikely, but possible.

No, you said it all right