USA Taliban question

[Dazedtonow]

Can someone please explain this to me? How is it that the USA can enter Afghanistan in 2001, overthrow the Taliban and then decide 19-20 years later to negotiate talks with them with a view to allowing a power share without consulting with the people of Afghanistan?

Have I got this correct? Apologies but would be grateful if someone would explain to me.

Just to clarify if the goal was to establish a democracy, how is it democratic to negotiate a deal with them without consulting with the actual people of the country? It feels like the USA imposed their belief the Taliban had to go 20 years ago, then imposed their belief that the Taliban could come back in some guise 20 years later.