Youre making a lot of assumptions.
Why would the midwife simply not have the mothers medical records?
Often medical decisions are a judgement call, not black and white, and the midwife perhaps was happy with the data she had?
We don't know. Are you suggesting that in your hypothetical situation of a woman concealing evidence from a midwife, that somehow justified her being forced to have medical intervention she doesn't consent to?
Do you not understand the difference between a mother wutholding consent to treatment for an existing child (one who has personhood in UK law), and refusing medical treatment/ intervention on her own body - even if that affects the unborn baby?
They are two very different scenarios.
I really would recommend reading the whole thread.