I'd like to point out the bleeding obvious to most posters here, but it is important.
The ICD-11 states
"a. Strong desire to be a different gender than the birth-registered sex."
Why is it phrased like that? Using both 'gender' and 'sex' in the same sentence. Are they trying to say that gender means the same thing as sex? If so, then why not simply say - a strong desire to be a different sex than what they are. Wouldn't that be clearer. Why the awkward language?
Or, as we are often told, do 'gender' and 'sex' have two different meanings? Then how can changing one be relevant to the state of the other? What is the connection? What does each word mean?
When reading the full ICD entry the mix of words continues, such as saying "a strong desire for the primary and/or anticipated secondary sex characteristics that match the experienced gender" - confusing!
Then it becomes clearer.
Full text from ICD-11 (my emphasis)
icd.who.int/browse/2026-01/mms/en#344733949
"Gender incongruence of childhood is characterised by a marked incongruence between an individual’s experienced/expressed gender and the assigned sex in pre-pubertal children. It includes a strong desire to be a different gender than the assigned sex; a strong dislike on the child’s part of his or her sexual anatomy or anticipated secondary sex characteristics and/or a strong desire for the primary and/or anticipated secondary sex characteristics that match the experienced gender; and make-believe or fantasy play, toys, games, or activities and playmates that are typical of the experienced gender rather than the assigned sex. The incongruence must have persisted for about 2 years. Gender variant behaviour and preferences alone are not a basis for assigning the diagnosis."
It's sexism.
It says "Gender variant behaviour and preferences alone are not a basis for assigning the diagnosis" and yet the whole thing is a list of preferences.
This is a massive problem at the point of diagnosis, and needs to be re-examined before experimenting on children.