I know nothing about how the law works, so apologies if this is a stupid question. But I've heard it (from not unbiased sources) a few times that the Supreme Court ruling is in conflict with Goodwin vs UK. I believe it's unlikely that there will be a case at ECHR level about this but if there is - if a trans person seeks to be treated as the opposite sex in the UK and their case ends up in the ECHR - could Goodwin be overturned or superseded?