I've dipped into this thread, rather than following all of it.
Can I just double check my understanding ahead of today please:
NHS Fife and Dr U denied that there was any investigation into Sandie Peggie prior to her suspension. It then transpired that there are emails which show that an investigation was started (before being dropped) and which referred to a "hate crime" i.e. they had labelled it as such before even looking into the allegations. Some of the previously missing emails are between Dr U and the BMA. The timeline of who said what to who will be unpicked today with Dr U.... and after an adjournment it will also be unpicked with the NHS witnesses.
Is that correct?
The bit I'm least clear on is where the term "hate crime" started being used - I must have missed the posts where this was outlined.
To add:
My understanding of a hate crime is that in England (and Wales?) there has to actually be a standard crime committed in the first place for this term to apply. In such a circumstance, a court may then consider an extension to a sentence (when someone has been convicted of a crime) because the crime was considered to be motivated by a specific category of "hate". But in and of itself, there is no such thing as a standalone hate crime. However, in Scotland it is different and it's possible to commit a "hate crime" as a standalone incident (but as demonstrated by JKR, saying that a TW is a man is not considered to be a hate crime.... therefore presumably saying that males shouldn't use women's CRs wouldn't be either).
Is that also correct re hate crime law?