So while there may be an element of racial targeting, I don’t think it’s clear enough to say it’s racially motivated. Do you think all inter racial crimes are motivated by racism? Or might it also be about opportunity.
I think one of the main issues here, and one of the main causes of many people’s anger is that in the UK at present, the default position by the media, institutions, politicians and, if I may say, many on the left, is that by default violent inter-racial crime by white people is assumed to be racist in nature, whilst violent inter-racial crime against white people is by default assumed to not be racist in nature.
Obv this is a huge oversimplification and I’m not talking about each and every violent crime. But it is the immediate reaction in many cases, that these conclusions are immediately drawn, promulgated by the media and accepted by many people.
This then develops a circular effect where there are high profile racist attacks on non-white people covered by the media etc but very little discussion of racist attacks against white people. Which is then used to promote the idea that attacks on white people are not fuelled by racism, and so it goes round and round.
If a black or brown person, for example, runs amock with a knife in an ethnically diverse area and stabs and kills three people who all look white, whilst not stabbing anyone who doesn’t look white, then yes, I think a racial motive is likely and should be carefully considered. We all know it would be if the races were reversed.
Similarly if Pakistani men are predominantly targeting white children then a racial motive should be carefully considered. If the men are verbally racially abusing the children then, it’s pretty clearly at least partially racially motivated. That doesn’t mean they are not doing the same (possibly including the racial verbal abuse, I don’t know) to children of other ethnicities. It is perfectly possible to be racist to more than one race/ethnicity.