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I recently listened to this podcast interview with Isabelle Thieuleux, a French feminist lawyer, who was discussing this case. She made the point that in France people are pushing for lack of consent to be included in their definition of rape but she feels that is a bad idea because the notion of consent puts all the focus on the woman's behaviour, whether she said 'no' etc, rather than the intent of the man, and also because men accused of rape always argue that the sex was consensual.
Given the different legal definitions of rape in the UK vs France, I would be interested to know if there is a difference in rape convictions outcomes. I do think that consent in and of itself is an inappropriate framework with which to conduct sexual relationships, and therefore our understanding or definition of rape.