The question was: since pregnancy is entirely dependant on having a female reproductive system it can't be consistent with living as a man, and should an individual who does this be stripped of their GRC?
Conversely as I understand it in English law rape is defined as non-consensual penetration with a penis. Since the penis is a male organ then committing rape can't be consistent with living as a woman. In which case surely a MtF GRC holder should be stripped of their status upon conviction for rape?
I've thought this for a long time, Wokery. And you are right - it is back to definitions - and no-one seems able to provide them.
Objective, observable, provable, scientific evidence in the form of biology is negated by subjective, non-observable, non-scientific "feelings" which can' be neither proven nor even described.