OMG - OK round two - @TatianaLarina I said ‘I think...’ as in from memory- I wasn’t presenting you with fact I was reflecting that out of interest I thought there had been a change in the law that had widened the definition of rape. There had - but not as wide as I speculated.
So there was a recent case of a woman who had impersonated a man and used a plastic penis on her girlfriend - and it was reported as ‘rape’. I knew there had been a change to rape to include mouth and anus - but obviously I was wrong about objects - as was the reporting. So yes - grateful to you to know that if they are ‘raped’ with an object they have not actually been raped but sexually assaulted. It’s what I had always known been taught but I thought I might be out of date. It doesn’t make me ‘routinely inaccurate’ But Thank you!
Anyway @Katy78 - the law doesn’t actually define consent - other than using alternate words for the same thing. That is to say it doesn’t give examples of what words or actions constitute consent. It states that sex without consent is assault or rape.
So what actually constitutes signalling consent is rather nuanced (for obvious reasons really) and for a jury to decide in any case.
It really isn’t inaccurate to point out that drunken consent is still consent. The question is whether someone is so drunk as to be incapable of consent - not whether their consent was sober. If you think that is inaccurate then why not reference the contrary ruling.
What I referenced is an article about a high court judge legal ruling that set precedent that drunken consent is still consent. I think the judge went rather too far in favour of the accused. But you asked for legal example of drunken consent still being consent. I gave one. There are others.
But Legislation doesn’t define everything- it’s all decided by case law - ie the decisions of judge and jury and it changes and evolves over time.
I studied it for a masters degree ...a long time ago!. ‘Reasonable belief in consent’ was introduced in the 1980s - meaning that even if a woman hasn’t consented - if the accused had a reasonable belief that she had consented, then he is acquitted. Some appalling miscarriages as a consequence along the way, in challenging the definition of ‘reasonable belief’.
I’m not making it up - but law is mostly opinion - that’s what lawyers are paid for.