Absolutely, and that’s what I struggled with when my niece asked me her questions.
For example, if in one room there were two lesbians, performing oral sex and digital sex on each other, to some that would be classed as them having sex with each other. But if in the room next door there was a heterosexual couple doing the exact same sexual activities with each other (and that’s all they’d ever done with each other) why wouldn’t they be classed as having sex with each other?
Would you say that a heterosexual couple engaging in foreplay with each other are no longer virgins even though PIV has never taken place between them?
In my eyes, and probably a large part of societies eyes, there is a difference between sexual activity (all means of foreplay), and actual sex (PIV), which is separates a virgin from a non-virgin.
And this is what I stumbled over when trying to answer my niece’s questions.
I.e why when two girls are engaging in foreplay together would it be classed as them having sex (and so they wouldn’t be viewed as virgins), but a male/female couple engaging in the exact same foreplay (and who’d never had sex) would still be classed as virgins?
Where is the line between how a lesbian loses her virginity compared to how heterosexual people lose their virginity.
I’m probably not explaining myself very well and sorry again for any offence that may have been caused.
I absolutely agree with you though that different people have different ideas about what sex actually is.