I'll tell you what's challenging for me. Your conviction that your non-sequitur there contributed to the conversation.
OldCrone was quoting from the BBC article which I linked, which also says:
Social and religious divisions based on origin, skin colour and appearance were present in both medieval England and Europe.
The paper said that from 1336 to 1584 "nearly 18,000 'foreigners' had come to London from India, Greece, Iceland, and mainland Europe".
While no population figures for black women in London have been recorded the paper added during this period mercantile and richer migrants who regularly stayed in London, accompanied by entire households, often had servants who were free or enslaved people originating from Sub-Saharan and northern Africa or Eastern Europe.
The research team added people of colour were established in the UK thousands of years and ago and this was reflected in literature and other sources.
The presence of black people in the UK during that period is firmly established. OldCrone was not disputing it. She was querying whether the report was claiming there to have been a greater population than the number of black Britons today.
What do you do? Do you respond to what she commented? No, you post a link informing us that black people lived in Britain in the 1600s. Yes. We. Know.
Again, I ask, are you a fucking bot?