This whole progressive thing. I’ve asked it before & not got an answer, & having RTFT, have little reason to expect an answer here, but…
The premise is that it’s self-evidently “progressive” to redefine “woman” from 1) only female-bodied to 2) including male-bodied who perceive themselves as such. Right? So what am I missing?
1), above, provides 51% of the global population - female-bodied people - with the language necessary to advocate for their political rights & needs - they have no other single, collective noun to describe themselves. Many of these needs are still, in many respects, unmet (eg. medical research into women’s bodies, PPE for women), & many of these rights are terrifyingly recent (eg. votes for women). Others are at risk (eg. laws & social contracts that have evolved to give this group, including religious minorities & those with PTSD, equal access to public spaces, participation in public life & dignity).
Option 2) removes from female-bodied people the language necessary to advocate for their political rights & needs - they have no other single, collective noun to describe themselves. HOWEVER, Option 2) also assuages the intense distress felt by a minority of male-bodied people & facilitates their access to public spaces, participation in public life & dignity.
@Nt1993 & @DC1888, please - a genuine, utterly bamboozled please - explain how 2) is so self-evidently, unambiguously “progressive” in this context, & option 1), woman retaining its original meanjng, “regressive”. You feel this so strongly, you surely must be able to explain. My summary above is, after all, biased to a GC perspective. What are your counter-arguments?