I was already told before by a regular poster on this thread that any statistical over-representation for offences like rape, possession of images of child sexual exploitation and so on, was because this population was marginalised and discriminated against.
The mechanism has still not been explained to me, and when I asked, she left the thread.
Is it being claimed that transphobia is leading to people being falsely convicted of rape?
Or is the claim that they are correctly convicted, but another male who did not identify as trans and committing the same offence would successfully convince the court he was not guilty?
If either of these, how does this fit in with how lenient the sentencing has been for the perpetrators in the examples we post? I cannot see evidence of bias against trans individuals there.
Or is it just "you meanies make them rape people"?