“We recognise that in 1920 gender and sex would probably have been understood by most people in rather more simplistic terms than nowadays, but we have no reason to think that the term sex would not, even then, have been treated as synonymous with gender.”
“We have no reason to think that….,,,?”
Surely there may well be reason to think that in 1920 sex meant biological sex, and if for people in 1920 sex and gender were synonymous, that would mean that both meant biological sex.
Was an etymologist consulted by the judges? I don’t think so.
Why have the judges come to this decision?