Do we know that those with a dsd experience “natural male puberty”? Surely if they have some sort of hormone or genetic issue that means testosterone doesn’t have the usual effect in utero/childhood and they don’t develop male genitalia, then why would it suddenly behave as normal throughout and after puberty?
The 46XY DSD disorder 5-ARD that Semenya and Mboma suffer from is quite specific. They're deficient in DHT (dihydrotestosterone) which is important to forming the reproductive system/genitalia correctly during early development.
From my reading, DHT does not have much impact on the rest of the body, so aside from genitalia, they are standard males.
They never had any problem with normal testosterone, so when production of that ramps up in puberty, it has all the usual effects. And part of those effects is to develop the genitalia, which means they become more obviously male as the penis develops further. And they get the usual male athletic performance.
Wikipedia:
Many SRD5A2 mutations come from areas of with high coefficients of inbreeding including the Dominican Republic (where people with the condition are called güevedoces - "penis at twelve")
This is what I don’t quite grasp, people seem to be saying that these individuals have a disorder that means they don’t produce or respond to testosterone so don’t develop normal male genitalia,
That would be an accurate description of a different 46XY DSD - CAIS - complete androgen insensitivity syndrome.
Those individuals do what you surmise - they do not undergo male puberty, and have more clearly female genitalia. And they are permitted to compete in the female category.