I saw red. I came back into the dining area and said what did you say and he said fuck off again. He was sitting at the table and I pushed him so hard both him and the chair fell over
The OP tried to leave the scene of the argument. Her DH prevented this by a provocative act (swearing), inducing her to return to the room.
SERIOUSLY? HE PREVENTED IT? 
So let's switch gender roles and see how it reads:
I saw red. I came back into the dining area and said what did you say and she said fuck off again. I pushed her so hard both she and the chair fell over.*
So explain to me again how he prevented her from leaving the scene of the argument by swearing at her? He stayed in his chair throughout the whole thing.
She'd already left the room and chose to go back in to teach him a lesson by pushing him really, really hard. . Can you honestly sit there and say with a straight face, that he induced that? By swearing?
I am genuinely bewildered by some of the responses on here.
Some posters seem determined to see this as an all-or-nothing attribution of blame. The OP pushed her husband so she must be the abuser and he must be the victim.
Well in this instance, I'd say that pretty much sums it up, yes. How else could it be construed, unless you are in the habit of defending people who have physically violent reactions to marital tiffs? 
Look, I am by no means calling for her to be arrested and charges and strung up, or for her kids to be carted off by Social Services, but seriously, you have GOT to stop excusing and minimising her behaviour based on the fact that:
a) she is a woman
b) you want to mark him down as a generally abusive goody fucker. You know no such thing. And as I said before, it is still not a defence, especially given that she has ample opportunity to walk away from the confrontation and chose to go back to it.