And you think that this person's condition that is even rarer than the potential DSD of these male athletes is relevant to this situation why?
If this person is not producing testosterone or has a body that is sensitive to testosterone, what is your point?
And by the way, there is a difference also in 'testing XY in only some cells' and being fully chromosomal XY and therefore being 'XY = male by genotype' . It is you here who is trying to leverage people's medical conditions into your own political agenda.
Which posters on this thread do you think are ignoring that there are rare cases where people's bodies will have some XX cells and some XY. In fact, probably most of us have even read the paper on the pregnancy that has been studied where this has happened. It does nothing to support either side of the argument.
Because to be consider 'female' requires a body categorised to be formed around the production of large gametes, even if those large gametes don't get produced. That requires ovaries. It excludes any human with testes or streak testes where the categorisation will be very difficult.
These cases do not disprove the categorisation. Just like people born without a working leg do not disprove the catagorisation of human beings being in the 'bi-ped' category. We are talking about categorisation.
The issue has been always, male DSDs with virilisation.
Do you agree that any male who has the advantages delivered by going through any degree of male puberty should be included in female sports categories? yes? or no?