I think that you are perpetuating misinformation here. Likely due to the ambiguity caused by language being used, just as you point out. That male people who have medical conditions, but are male people because they have a body that has been formed around the production of small gametes, regardless of whether those gametes are ever produced, are being referred to as 'female'. Those male people have testes, visibly outside the body or not. They do not have ovaries.
That is your choice. But I see from your first sentence you are querying whether people would do that. That is a personal choice. One for every one to make.
However, what language you or I use face to face with these male people, while important for collective harm reasons when it is leveraged to change policy, does not change the science.
People with differences of sex development, as you might know, are about 0.018% of the population.
https://www.realityslaststand.com/p/the-true-definition-of-intersex
Even amongst these DSDs, there is one even rarer group of male people that may not go through a virilised, testosterone driven puberty. The rest of the male people with DSDs do go through some degree of male puberty.
You have made the statement :
"Women with DSD are part of the natural range of women and so should be able to compete against other women, because they're women too."
Do you mean, female people with DSDs (that is those female people with a body formed around producing large gametes, regardless of whether those gametes are produced. Which means they have ovaries not testes)? Or do you mean male people with DSDs that have gone through male puberty in any degree?
Because that testosterone that I think you are talking about, is something that is an issue with MALE athletes. No female athlete ever has to suppress their testosterone to compete fairly with other female people. Because those female athletes produce within the acceptable 'female range' of testosterone.
I have attached a chart that is useful. But yesterday, a testosterone researcher published a twitter thread about this. I am happy to post her tweet here so you can read it if you don't have twitter.
https://x.com/hoovlet/status/1819041282594873759
I will also post separately some figures for you to consider too.
Language is vital here for clarity.
"This is not a new phenomenon, these women will've been acing in women's sport for decades/centuries."
Not in the Olympics while they were testing for the sex of female people to enter the events. That stopped in the late 90s to allow these male people to compete unfairly in the female category.
Besides which.... since when was an injustice acceptable because it was done that way for decades/centuries?