Reading your comment I think the issue is there are multiple different "branches" of Zionism that are all recognised as valid. Jewish people are talking about one and Non Jewish people are talking about another
I think non Jewish people have hijacked the word and decided it means all sorts of ugly things. I think it's a very easy way to say things you couldn't say if you use the word "Jew".
Zionism refers to the movement to create a Jewish state in the Middle East, roughly corresponding to the historical land of Israel, and thus support for the modern state of Israel. Anti-Zionism opposes that.
So maybe back in 1912 being an "anti zionist" meant that you were someone who believed that was a bad idea. But as Israel has already existed already for 75 years and is home to 9 million people (including about 2 million Muslims) - so what down sit mean now when people say it?
What it now means is obviously that they think an established, existing country should no longer exist. Be destroyed. There really isn't any other interpretation surely?
Non Jewish people including myself tend to define Zionism by the Israeli governments current modern Zionist ideology, which has lead to the ongoing oppression and genocide of Palestinians
The definition I gave above is what it means, so maybe a better title for the thread should be "can I take words that hold deep meanings for Jews and the meaning of 3000 years of their experience and give those words new, and very unpleasant, definitions that associate their country with concepts of genocide and oppression"? To which the answer is hopefully "no" - particularly given that no people on earth have been greater victims of genocide and oppression than we have.
This is an important Jewish word. To us, what you're saying would be comparable to "non Muslims" deciding that the word "Mosque" now means "terrorist", based on "modern extremist Islamic ideology". Can you picture how offensive that would be? This is how offensive this feels for us.
There really isn't a "modern zionist ideology". There is just a set of policies by one government. The same as every other government. No need for special words to create a term which identifies Israel as uniquely evil and possessing of some unusual ideology.
You need to really deconstruct these words you are associating with Israel specifically over any other country. You use these two words "genocide and oppression". Do you really believe only Israel or "zionists" are deserving of these words? Why?
To break down these words, the UN has a definition of "Genocide" which is as follows:
"Any of the following acts committed with the intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnic, racial or religious group, as such":
- Killing members of the group
- Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group
- Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part
- Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group
- Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group
I would say one could argue Israel does the first three? But also, so does Hamas. So have almost every single Arab nation to Jews. So do many, many other countries actually.
When you read more on the expert definition it states:
"Genocide is a crime on a different scale to all other crimes against humanity and implies an intention to completely exterminate the chosen group. Genocide is therefore both the gravest and greatest of the crimes against humanity."
So I am going to ask you to answer in good faith: do you reasonably believe Israel has tried to "exterminate" Palestinians? They have the military capacity to do this overnight - and yet I think since Hamas took leadership in 2006 that the data says there have been under 3000 civilian deaths in total. 3000 over 18 years in an ongoing conflict? Genocide? Honestly?
Also, Hamas have stated - both in their original covenant and in many, many, many public statements that their intent is to "completely exterminate" Jews. So it is they actually who have stated intent of genocide - and it seems only their capacity / lack of weaponry power has prevented them from achieving it.
So my question really is why would you associate Israel with genocide, when it is their opponent who has spent almost forty years declaring their actual intent is genocide? Why would you associate Israel with "genocide" when UN experts say in the last century only two genocides have occurred (Holocaust and Rwanda) and for some reason you're now applying that definition to a conflict with very minimal loss of life?
It's something to think about.
Similarly, oppression. I don't object to the use of the word (whilst genocide felt like serious hyperbole). They do oppress Palestinians. But my question is why do you feel this is unique to them? Hamas oppress their own citizens with worse human rights abuses by a considerable measure. Jews are again, oppressed similarly by almost every Arab state. Historically, Jews lived for 600 years as Dhimmi to Muslims, which is my definition - "oppression" and "Apartheid" in it's worst forms.
Certainly elsewhere in the world FAR worse oppression happens. Try being gay in Iran for example. So I am just a bit confused why this very derogatory set of terms are applied to Israel and "Zionism" in this very targeted way? It feels odd to me, so I am just asking you to think about it and consider why the Jewish state is targeted in this way. Particularly given that we are people who have - for 3000 years - been similarly targeted for criticism in a unique and disproportionate way.
I have not and will not ever say your country should not exist. Because I don't believe that
Thank you - but as I said, when you say you are anti zionist - this is what you are saying :) Factually speaking those are the meaning of the words.