I think this is where it gets tricky.
Yes, definitely much more safe if he's using a condom. No doubts about that.
But, for example, would I refuse sex with a partner who was wearing a condom, because I wasn't on the pill, or would I deem that we were using adequate protection, irrespective of who puts it on/swallows a tablet.
If the condom broke, would I be expected to have a baby because "I knew what could happen, why didn't I protect myself, how irresponsible" or would it be more accurate to say the joint contraception failed, and on the basis we were using contraception, neither of us wanted to conceive. I would not either continue with the pregnancy in accordance with this, or would know quite clearly, I could continue against the man's wishes, and have the child, but not with a present father. I think too many forget just because a woman can choose to become a mother, a man does not choose to become a father, every child born is because the mother has chosen that conception to mature to birth. It's ok for them to decide not to have the baby at all because they don't want the child. Yet it's not ok for the man to do the same, all because the woman makes the opposite choice to him?
I think also, should a condom break, I think the man is less likely to be an absent father. Because he knows he wasn't manipulated into an unwanted child, it was a genuine accident, so the disgust and inability to be around the mother isn't there.