The Laws in Wales Act 1535 decreed that English was to be the only language used in Welsh courts and that monoglot Welsh speakers were barred from holding public office
This is the 16th century. When courts used English and Latin . The idea that just because someone spoke English and Latin meant that the common English man had an advantage isnt true
The stated aim of the act was to prevent : “the people … using a speech nothing like the natural mother tongue (English) within this Realm … and to extinguish the sinister traditions and customs differing from the laws of this Realm (England)
Which could he said about many parts if England at the time.
The first British Law enacted in Ireland which specifically banned the use of the Irish language was Article III of The Statute of Kilkenny from 1367 which made it illegal for English colonists in Ireland to speak the Irish language and for the native Irish to speak their language when interacting with them. This was followed in 1537 with The Statute of Ireland – An Act for the English Order Habit and Language that prohibited the use of the Irish language in the Irish Parliament. In 1541, further legislation was passed which banned the use of Irish in the areas of Ireland then under English rule. The Administration of Justice (Language) Act (Ireland) was passed by the Irish Parliament in 1737. The Act not only forbids the speaking of Irish within the courtroom, it also prohibits the completion of legal documentation in Irish and imposes a financial penalty of £20 each time Irish is spoken in court in contravention of the law.
Now we are even further back in time. When Latin was the language of the courts and the ruling elite and when a French heritage ruling class were in power .
Do the people of Yorkshire complain that at some point in ancient history they were banned from speaking Danish?
The other dates im guessing relate to suppressing rebellions and secret oaths and were probably temporary. Secret oaths and rebellions were also crushed in England under similar measures. Penal laws were not just applied in Ireland
A report of the Secretary of State in 1871 sums up the prevailing view of the period: “The Gaelic language … decidedly stands in the way of the civilization of the natives making use of it”. In 1872 Scotland moved for the first time to a compulsory, state-directed, and state-funded system of education covering the entire country. Even then no provision of any kind was made for Gaelic.
But still no legislation on banning or forcing language in schools.
Scotland had it's own law system, separate from Englnad, and had done for some time
For similar for Scots, see Education (Scotland) Act 1872. It's only since we got our own government that the use of Scots in education has been allowed.
Some people on this thread are incredibly ignorant of their own history.
As I said above. Scotland had it's own law system and always has.
And you call me ignorant