Would any of the Yes supporters be able to explain how an independent Scotland is going to be able to join the EU in the foreseeable future on economic grounds?
Just suppose it can get over the massive start up costs, job losses and tax rises on this badly worked out attempt at independence. The fact that it will have to try and negotiate some sort of customs union with its biggest customer, the Rest of the UK, on less favourable terms than it has now, and deal with more expensive imports and exports than at present from the EU.
Now, I'm no economist, but I do know that the EU and originally the Common Market was set up to stimulate a flat economy after WW2 on the basis that economies of scale boost trade, production and jobs. Everything that followed after that was to further boost the these so that a single market was achieved (which is now moving slightly towards some of the social and environmental concerns originally envisaged too).
How is Scotland going to get its economy in a fit state for joining the Euro, as new entrants to the EU must? The existing wealthy countries in the Euro have a hard enough time meeting its requirements. Sweden hasn't even managed it yet. Lithuania, Romania, Bulgaria, Croatia, The Czech Republic, Poland and Hungary haven't either. Look at the names of those states, which are already way ahead of Scotland in terms of EU trade. They haven't met the so-called convergence criteria, which are:
•Price stability, to show inflation is controlled;
•Soundness and sustainability of public finances, through limits on government borrowing and national debt to avoid excessive deficit;
•Exchange-rate stability, through participation in the Exchange Rate Mechanism (ERM II) for at least two years without strong deviations from the ERM II central rate;
•Long-term interest rates, to assess the durability of the convergence achieved by fulfilling the other criteria.
The exchange-rate stability criterion is chosen to demonstrate that a Member State can manage its economy without recourse to excessive currency fluctuations, which mimics the conditions when the Member State joins the euro area and its control of monetary policy passes to the European Central Bank.
Why do we never hear Salmond talking about any of this? Why is it not in the White Paper?