The statistic implies that actually you are safer if you do drink.
It does not imply anything of the sort, and people on here who keep repeating it have no understanding of statistics.
At any one time, what proportion of women in this country are likely to be drunk? I have no real idea, but let's say one in 100. I'd be happy to accept anyone's alternative figure, but please accept mine just for the moment.
If 1 in 100 women are drunk, and assuming drinking is irrelevant to being raped, we would expect that 1 in 100 raped women would be drunk.
But we are told by the poster that 1 in 3 women have been drinking. If that is a true figure, there is a very clear correlation between drinking and being raped. For instance, if my guesstimate of 1 in 100 drunkenness is correct, you are 33 times more likely to be raped drunk than if you are sober.
This is not victim blaming, one thing we are all agreed on is that the rapist is always to blame under all circumstances. But since statistics are being mentioned, do please use the method correctly.