I've read through the Summary once, and all I've got so far is that they seem to have decided that 'sex' is a more useful term than 'gender' - hurrah, I thought.. but on reflection I can't make out what the difference between “deception as to sex”, and “deception as to gender”.
- Whether a deception as to (however that deception is operated) is sufficiently closely connected to the performance of the sexual act that the complainant cannot be said to have made a free choice to participate in it.
This seems to refer to hooking up with someone and only finding out when you're about to have sex with them that - OMG what's
that😱- a situation which has been recounted by posters on this board.
At this point, your consent is vitiated. But wouldn't it be vitiated anyway, if you just decided 'I don't want this to continue', for any reason, not just that you've noticed that your companion is not the sex you thought they were?
But in the McNally case, the knowledge of deception was retrospective, so consent at the time was later vitiated.. my head hurts now too, Fenlandia!
If they just decided that 'sex' is the only relevant term, and that 'deception by sex' is what the law is concerned with, and removed the term 'gender', wouldn't it be easier? How are they going to prove 'deception by gender' as opposed to 'deception by sex'.
'My client was deceived into believing the defendant was butch in the sheets, whereas in fact she was only butch in the streets'
I looked up what 'vitiate' means, a new word in my vocabulary so at least that's a positive