I've been re-reading this thread and I have some issues.
Firstly, it has been put forth that LT is "legally entitled" to change with the women under local law. I'm sure there is some kind of official classification for such an attempt to dodge the debate, but I cannot remember it now. Regardless, yes, I am aware it is legal and I say that it shouldn't be, and that this legislation acts to women's detriment. As many statutes have done.
Secondly, I see the quibbling over whether Thomas wants to cause distress to female teammates as immaterial.
The more interesting questions are
i) could a reasonable person foresee that Thomas's actions had the potential to cause distress?
ii) is Thomas as an individual incapable of foreseeing the potential for distress?
iii) is Thomas incapable of noticing the press coverage of anonymous teammates explaining they are unhappy with the situation?
You may be confused by the formulation of these questions, but fear not, I shall explain. At length. 
The majority of criminal offences (but not all) in England and Wales have two components: actus reus and mens rea, and the magistrate or jury must be convinced both are present. I shall explain using an example.
Imagine that you are being prosecuted for stamping on my foot. The court must be convinced that there was
i) actus reus - legal speak for the offence actually happened (my foot was stamped on) and that it was you. Perhaps it was someone who merely looked like you. Perhaps I have a grudge against you and it never happened.
ii) mens rea - legal speak for determining whether you meant to stamp on my foot. It seems a bit harsh to condemn you if you stepped on my foot by accident.
For most situations, these two tests suffice. But what if you do not actively wish to injure me for the sake of it, but you commit to a course of action aware that it is a likely outcome? If a man deliberately sets fire to his office building during working hours, with the intention of claiming the insurance money, are those who die in the fire any the less dead because he says he hoped all the employees would all escape the building in time? (Yes, based on real cases.) Enter the legal concept of recklessness, which handles whether people are culpable for the obvious consequences of their acts, or whether they should be exonerated because they didn't want to kill anyone in the fire.
After many test cases, this is the current guidance from the House of Lords.
extract
R v G & R[2003] 3 WLRHouse of Lords
The two appellants, aged 11 and 12, went camping for a night without their parents’ permission. The boys found some old newspapers outside the Co-op which they lit with a lighter and then threw them under a wheelie bin. They then left without putting them out assuming they would naturally burn out. In fact the burning newspapers set light to the wheelie bin and the fire spread to the Co-op shop and caused over £1m of damage.
Held:
The defendants' convictions were quashed. The House of Lords overruledMPC v Caldwell[1982] AC 341.
The appropriate test of recklessness for criminal damage is:
"A person acts recklessly within the meaning of section 1 of the Criminal Damage Act 1971 with respect to -
(i) a circumstance when he is aware of a risk that it exists or will exist;
(ii) a result when he is aware of a risk that it will occur;
and it is, in the circumstances known to him, unreasonable to take the risk."
From: e-lawresources.co.uk/R-v-G--and--R.php
We cannot see inside Thomas' head to see whether LT intends to cause the female teammates distress, but surely it is an obvious risk of LT's choice to use the women's changing room? LT is not a gormless 12 year old, but a university student, and surely capable of reading the newspapers?