Going back to looking for examples of human rights-based justifications for countries being required to provide a legal mechanism for people to change legal sex..
(I get it that in the UK in 2004 this was done to avoid discriminating against trans people in the UK because it was a time when for example same sex marriage was not legal, and when there were different retirement ages between the sexes. Now these issues are resolved and are not issues of discrimination any more... I wonder is there any reason we still have the GRA..?)
Could any lawyers around, say if there is an established human rights necessity for the UK to keep the GRA? (Or necessitating any country under EConventionHR to begin provide it, if they don’t already have something like this?)
I am wondering if there is any such requirement to provide a mechanism to legally change sex, then what happens in ECHR countries that do not offer this? Has this human right necessity ever actually been determined?
and surely if it had been established as a human right under ECHR, then why would this legal change human right only be necessary with sex?-why would there not also be a requirement to offer a legal change system around people’s age, race, disability or any other characteristic?
Lex I think you asked for examples of where a human rights basis for requiring a state to have a GRA has been claimed.
Here’s one, from the Ministerial Foreword introduction to the consultation in Scotland on their GRA reform. The minister doesn’t offer any basis to justify it though:
’To comply with international human rights law, Scotland must have a system for obtaining legal gender recognition. Since 2004, trans people across the UK have had the right to legally change their gender through applying for a Gender Recognition Certificate.’
www.gov.scot/publications/gender-recognition-reform-scotland-bill-consultation-scottish-government/
Can any lawyers comment on what is this ‘international human rights law’ referred to?
Is it real, or is it Stonelaw? (In which case shouldn’t a minister be using proper legal justification in a formal consultation like this?) or is it a comment on the legal situation in the UK in 2004, while ignoring that the discriminatory situation eg on same sex marriage, has been (quite rightly) legally reformed since that time? 