There's no male equivalent because, hostile as many women find the pill, the level of hormonal dose required to disrupt once a month ovulation is nothing compared to what is needed to halt continuous production of sperm.
A reversible blockage to the transit if sperm is much more promising than suppressing production.
The question about this that I'm not clear about is the need to establish that the man has ceased the transit if viable sperm. It can take weeks if not months to get the all-clear after vasectomy, because the ampullae are upstream of the blocked vas and any lurking there have to be flushed out before it's safe. Would this method need the same testing?