If a certain type of crime is disproportionately committed by a particular ethnic group or people from particular countries or of a particular religion, then there is a cultural element, isn't there? By definition. If there is no cultural element, types of crimes will be committed proportionally across the population.
The only time we would see a difference in incidences of crimes between cultures which is not cultural is for crimes where opportunity is a major factor or where inequalities such as poverty are an explanation.
Are opportunity or inequalities the factors behind these crimes?
Opportunity
Many people on this thread have argued that the girls were particularly vulnerable to abuse because of their family backgrounds and some have explicitly blamed the parents. However, if the vulnerability of the girls was the major factor in these crimes being committed (which I do not accept, but for the purposes of the argument) and the culture of the abusers is irrelevant, why have there not been a similar number of cases of grooming gangs which are not Asian Muslims to those Muslim grooming gangs we know of in Rochdale, Rotherham, Oxford, Bristol, Dewsbury, Halifax, Huddersfield, Sheffield, Keighley, Leeds, etc, etc?
Poverty
Same argument. There are far larger numbers of people living in poverty in the UK who are not Asian Muslims, but we are not seeing this type of crime perpetrated in anything like the numbers by these people.
(If I am wrong in my assumption that 90% of street grooming gangs are Muslims, mostly Asian but some African too, and there are large numbers of other street grooming gangs which are not being reported, please could you point me in the direction of the information on this.)