@SquishedMallow
"Repeated" rape. I believe it was 2 occasions in 20 years of being touched whilst asleep.
The OP says:
But sometimes I don't want to have sex or I'm asleep.
She says sometimes she's non consenting to sex and describes two instances of rape initiated whilst asleep ergo, repeated rapes. I'm wondering if he's otherwise sexually coercive.
So, first time there was no indication made that the op didn't wish for it to be happening.
Again, we don't know about the other instances, just the two initiated whilst asleep. As outlined above, the victim needs to consent throughout the act and can't whilst asleep. Secondly, the perpetrator had no indication that she was consenting as she was initially asleep. Orgasm during rape is not uncommon and not a sign of consent.
There was no conversation the next day or in the time period after (this is her husband, her childhood sweetheart, who by her own admission has been a loving and kind husband for 20years with no abusive behaviours)
First, it's not uncommon for a victim of domestic abuse to either not recognise abusive behaviour or to be in denial. As you can see in this instance, the OP wasn't sure if non consensual sex was rape and doesn't see her husband as abusive. Therefore it's not unlikely that he is abusive in other ways. It's typical for someone not to know how to broach a traumatic incident.
She also orgasmed through similar initiation of sex like this on a prior occasion and implies on her post that this was consensual.
Orgasm isn't an indicator of consent, it's a physiological response. The OP was asleep and therefore was unable to give consent.
So with this in mind, this may be implied consent in the husband's mind that sexual arousal beginning whilst asleep may be in fact ok with his wife.
Since the OP was asleep, she couldn't consent and consent needs to be gained during each sexual act. You can't presume consent. It's easy to know when someone is consenting as they are an equal participant, not lying rigid with a pillow over their face.
Then on the occasion she didn't like it, but no aversion was stated after, him doing it again at a later date may answer why he feels he is doing so with consent.
Consent can't be presumed and she was unconscious, therefore couldn't give consent. She's also clearly stated that she wasn't consenting.
I iterate again : the op states there is no history of abuse and he's been a loving husband for 20years.
Yet he's raping her.
We aren't savvy to the details of the OPs relationship and know he's abusive because he's raping her. For example, when she lay rigid with a pillow over her head (to dissociate), he didn't ask if she was okay, he just carried on.
It's important for the OP to understand that this is rape because she needs to protect herself from it happening again.