sawdustformypony I asked the question because I didn't understand why the defendant was able to use that defence when it had been outlawed.
I know it will not be popular here, but it's not complicated and you will need to be able to see through the nonsense (and often in the form of blatant lies) peddled by groups like We cant consent to this and this forum too. The press too aren't interested in the truth only selling copy and clickbaits and so are perfectly happy to jump on the bandwagon of WCCTT. Maybe they’ll spin this around one day and start attacking WTTCC in turn for misleading us all – but that is in the future. ‘Fury’ will, no doubt, be one of the words used when denouncing.
If you cant see through their lies, then the case of Pybus doesn’t make any sense and you are left obviously confused. Now, maybe WCCTT didn’t intent to mislead the public from the off, but as they rapidly rose to prominence, I think it was too late for them to simply apologise and admit their mistake.
The short answer, is that he didn't use that defence. That defence doesn't exist - and probably never has in England & Wales, (seem to remember fictional storylines about duelling being illegal centuries past in E&W) but the law was definitely settled in the case of R v Brown as a House of Lords case albeit that was an assault case - as per your government link.
Running out of time, as work is calling …to be continued.