Struggling with the logic here. So many questions...
Yesterday you said:
"That wealth never existed in the first place... We don't all get more wealthy sitting around while house prices increase."
and
"Many of the older people who have held houses for a long time have seen significant house price inflation... I don't think it is harsh to negate a portion of that."
Now you've doubled down with:
"The richest few pay more. They still will have gained huge amounts in housing equity over the years..."
So which is it?
If that wealth never existed, why is that same increase in value now the justification for a higher recurring tax?
And if housing equity is wealth, why should unrealised wealth be taxed every year before it's ever been realised? We generally tax income when it's received and gains when they're realised.? Even if the government really believes part of that "unfair" gain should be captured, when the gain is actually realised is the most logical point. Not whilst it's purely an unrealised paper valuation.
If the "wealth never existed", what exactly are you advocating should be taxed?
Government policy has contributed to decades of house price inflation and housing shortages, not older homeowners. Making current homeowners pay more based on paper valuations of "wealth" won't make homes more affordable. Building more homes will.
The irony is that the so-called "idle" family home is already expected to help fund residential care and, in many cases, those paying for their own care cross-subsidise people whose care is state funded. If you steadily tax away the equity people rely on to fund their own care, you increase the likelihood that those costs will ultimately fall back on taxpayers.