I can only assume you are being deliberately provocative or intentionally obtuse.
You clearly think that consent is only an issue if it relates to women. You clearly think women lying to their partners about contraception is essentially not a problem and that informed consent does not matter. All that matters is that the man did not use a condom!
I suppose if the woman were to damage or tamper with the condom, it would somehow still be his fault and/or totally ok? If not, what is the difference between that and telling your partner that you have stopped your pill or removed your implant etc? Both are invalidating his informed consent?
I’ll put it in simple terms- I think informed consent matters. For both parties. Every time, always. No if, buts or exceptions.
Given that Consent is based on a number of factors- one of which is use (or not) of contraception. Partners (even one night stands) agree on what, if any, contraception they will use before proceeding- however brief that “discussion” might be. I would agree that if neither party ask they are essentially consenting to having sex without any contraception and can’t really complain if the consequence is a pregnancy. However, One partner deliberately deceiving the other invalidates informed consent because if that agreed form of contraception was not, in fact, in place the person involved may not have chosen to have sex with their partner on that occasion. Consent cannot be assumed if the parameters are changed. That’s how it works.
The basis of decisions regarding contraception will involve what degree of risk of pregnancy each party is willing to take. Condoms aren’t something everyone (men and women) want to use. It is absolutely not the case that not using a condom means a man deserves to be lied to about his partners use of contraception! Why on earth would it? I agree it would be pragmatic to for men to use a condom if they are having a ONS or similar, but in a long-term relationship I don’t think it is unreasonable, entitled or stupid to expect your partner to be honest with you about contraception. And stick to what you agreed to use/tell you if they are going to stop using it. Not doing so, in a deliberate attempt to get pregnant is abhorrent.
For some couples (and individual men or women) a 92% level of effectiveness (the real life effectiveness of the pill) is an acceptable risk to stop using condoms, and they would accept a genuine failure. Others, a greater than 99% risk is a better bet. Again, they will accept the risk and deal with the consequences. Agreeing to that, and not using condoms in addition, is an entirely different situation from agreeing to totally unprotected intercourse.
If you cannot see that agreeing to sex in a situation where the method of contraception is 99.8% effective (e.g. the implant) is a) really not particularly irresponsible; and b) an entirely different proposition when compared to the 0% effectiveness if your partner has lied to you about having an implant (or not told you they’ve had it removed)-especially in the context of a committed relationship- then I can only say that I am sorry for anyone you have dealings with as you obviously do not view honesty and consent to be important.
i’ll put in another way- you are getting medical treatment. The surgeon says we could use a medication A which is 99% effective over a year (but perhaps more side-effects), or a different medication B, which has a 10% effectiveness (but few side-effects/risks), so you opt for A. But after thinking about it, your Dr decides to give you B. Or never had any intention of giving you A, because they have an incentive to use B instead but don’t think you’d agree do they told you about A, as this would get you to take the medication. So, you end up taking medication B and it fails. You are annoyed but then the Dr turns round and says “ but you didn’t check for yourself that I was giving you drug A. And you didn’t get another Dr to double check anything I did or said, so it’s your own fault”. Are you really telling me that you would find that acceptable. After all, the only that that matters is that you agrees to treatment. It’s not an exact analogy due to power/influence imbalance but similar point about consent.