And the author said this:
"The difference we observed between the 1989 to 2003 cohort and the control group is that the trans cohort group accessed more mental health care, which is appropriate given the level of ongoing discrimination the group faces. What the data tells us is that things are getting measurably better and the issues we found affecting the 1973 to 1988 cohort group likely reflects a time when trans health and psychological care was less effective and social stigma was far worse. "
They hypothesise that mental health care may have been an influence and it may have been. So, according to this, if a male person with a transgender identity does not receive mental health support they committed crimes that were at least at the rate of all other male people.
Can you point out where they then controlled for this in the wider male population, please?
Because you seem to be keen in drawing conclusions from data that is not really showing what you want it to say because the sample sizes are very small and/or the researchers have not controlled the study appropriately to be able to make the strength of the conclusions you are drawing from.
What I draw from this study is what the author says in the document published:
"This indicates that they retained a male pattern regarding criminality. The same was true regarding violent crime. "
and then further down
"In this study, male-to-female individuals had a higher risk for criminal convictions compared to female controls but not compared to male controls. This suggests that the sex reassignment procedure neither increased nor decreased the risk for criminal offending in male-to-females."
I believe that they have had to make these statements because they could not control like for like with mental health treatment. And to put this into the perspective for the UK crime statistics, is this even relevant considering the lack of mental health treatment available to so many male people living in the UK. Whether they are male people with a transgender identity or without a transgender identity.
Can you please explain what you believe that this study conclusively shows?
Plus can you then point to how it was misrepresented based on the published study?
Because I cannot find any correction to the study published, therefore there is not 'correction' to the study. And looking at the conclusions drawn, no correction was needed as crime was not included in the 'conclusions' which were:
Conclusion
This study found substantially higher rates of overall mortality, death from cardiovascular disease and suicide, suicide attempts, and psychiatric hospitalisations in sex-reassigned transsexual individuals compared to a healthy control population. This highlights that post surgical transsexuals are a risk group that need long-term psychiatric and somatic follow-up. Even though surgery and hormonal therapy alleviates gender dysphoria, it is apparently not sufficient to remedy the high rates of morbidity and mortality found among transsexual persons. Improved care for the transsexual group after the sex reassignment should therefore be considered.