I'll try explaining this as simply as I can.
Mate, your arguments aren't exactly complex. I understand them perfectly.
I just don't agree with your (patronisingly delivered) take on the topic .
The former is a statement about a teeny tiny percentage of all human males in very specific roles, while the latter implies an overarching degree of control shared by all or most men.
When the very specific roles you refer to are those of the greatest influence and power, worldwide, the fact the roles are overwhelmingly held by a 'teeny tiny percentage' of all human males still means that males have an overarching degree of control influence and power.
Nobody has said all men have influence and power.
Your argument is reductive because it doesn't account for the disproportionate power and influence of people in those very specific roles in comparison to the general population.
I'll put it as simply as possible, as you like that strategy.
Even if only 0.00001% (for example, it's obviously much less) of people globally had huge power and influence, if 90% of the people within that 0.00001% are men then men factually have an overarching degree of control, influence and power in comparison to women.
Do you not see any merit in wanting to change that?