You say that despite him having two clearly delineated groups, he wants you to think that something he says about the first group applies to some people in the second group, despite him not actually saying that.
You haven't provided any reason as to why that would be the case given the two groups being clearly delineated.
He talks about the two groups earlier too
"First, there is the world’s response. Matthew tells us that this conversation between Jesus and his disciples takes place in the beautiful town of Caesarea Philippi, filled with luxurious palaces, set in a magnificent natural landscape at the foot of Mount Hermon, but also a place of cruel power plays and the scene of betrayals and infidelity. This setting speaks to us of a world that considers Jesus a completely insignificant person, at best someone with an unusual and striking way of speaking and acting. And so, once his presence becomes irksome because of his demands for honesty and his stern moral requirements, this “world” will not hesitate to reject and eliminate him.
Then there is the other possible response to Jesus’ question: that of ordinary people. For them, the Nazarene is not a charlatan, but an upright man, one who has courage, who speaks well and says the right things, like other great prophets in the history of Israel. That is why they follow him, at least for as long as they can do so without too much risk or inconvenience. Yet to them he is only a man, and therefore, in times of danger, during his passion, they too abandon him and depart disappointed."
You'll notice that the first group is a 'place of cruel power plays and the scene of betrayals and infidelity'. Your interpretation requires that he actually means that some people in the second group are actually doing the power plays, betrayals and infidelities in the first group. But they are clearly meant to be two separate groups of people.