This and the CAIS/Swyer thread have been really educational. I’ve ended up both more informed and more confused at the same time! 😂
But I do think part of the mess we seem to be in stems in part from our wish to Not Offend.
I noticed on the other thread that one of the reasons given for XY individuals without a functioning SRY gene to be classified as females is because with a uterus, fallopian tubes and external female sex characteristics it would be unfair to say that they were male and had to live as a man. As well as those characteristics being functionally identical (an XY woman may gestate a baby with much medical intervention), they have characteristics which are identical in appearance to those found in XX females.
Yes, there also seems to be the classification that female = no functioning SRY, even though male is usually the default for XY, because the absence of SRY cannot be considered a fault.
Well, why not?
Unless we are also saying that the term ‘male’ must have specific accompanying external and internal features and that a lack of those features = not male, then I really don’t see why a lack of SRY cannot be a disorder of males. A lack of other features still makes a male a male, so why not a lack of the specific maleness gene??
Yes, I can see on the logical path that if someone lacks the male gene they’re not a male (!), but equally an individual with XX chromosomes is never going to lack the SRY gene because they shouldn’t have it to begin with. The only one that can be missing it is XY.
And given that apparently Wt1 is the female equivalent of SRY, and that having SRY+mutatedWt1 (if I’ve understood that correctly) = female, I don’t see why presence of SRY should take precedence in determining if someone is male or female.
In many ways it seems actively regressive.
And no, I wouldn’t expect an individual with Swyer’s to ‘live as a man’, but equally I don’t see why it is wrong to suggest that they are a male with a DSD that gives them female characteristics.
On the social side that may be tough to hear, but then I imagine finding out that you possess a DSD is bad enough.
I’m coming to the conclusion, as others have mentioned, that the softening of language, from disorder to difference, with the intention to destigmatise the notion of having a DSD for those that suffer from them, is partly fuelling the mess we’re in with TRAs declaring sex is on a spectrum and there’s more than one way to be a woman, because the language we use to describe those conditions allows this extrapolation.
Does this help anyone?
I’m thinking no, not in any practical sense, in fact it may do the opposite.
If ‘female’ may be XX or it may be XY, then it’s easy to extend that to saying the definition of male or female is looking like one, and that plays right into the TRAs court.