I am concerned that if this is a procedural win it means that the GP can discriminate so long as they discriminate in the procedurally correct way.
I don't know how, exactly , because IANAL, and I didn't follow the case as it unfolded, but I wonder if the declaration of unlawful discrimination is relevant here? The EA might override any conflicting procedures, in the same way as it overrides contractual clauses. Perhaps the "narrow procedural grounds" relates to the "how". I don't think it means that it's a technical rather than a substantive win.
Also, IIRC, a first-instance judgement does not set a legal precedent, so even if your conjecture is correct, it wouldn't stymie other claims.