I have a question, and please please I'm not trying to hijack or goad or distract etc. I'm not a transally and haven't been tasked to disrupt FWR threads! This is a genuine question - specific to abortion rights:
@Barracker you said this: Abortion is not a woman's right, if the law believes it is also a man's right. Who are the right holders under the law? Both men and women. All humans. Who can legally claim an interest in that right? All humans. How to legally distinguish between those that need and can exercise the right, and those who do not, and cannot?
I'm not sure what this actually means. So a woman becomes pg, wants an abortion and has the right to have one. As men don't get pg they would never be in a position to want an abortion and will never need one.
Is it that the problem comes when a couple become pg, and the woman wants an abortion and the man doesn't? They both have the right to have an abortion but only the woman needs one - presumably the man just has to suck it up as he does now (I know there's been at least one case where the man tried to force the woman to continue with her unwanted pg, but I can't remember what the outcome was - I think he lost.)
Is the problem when the man doesn't want a child but the woman does? So he has a right have an abortion, but as he's not pg he can't have one. His right to force the woman to continue with the pg is the same as it is now and unaffected/not relevant to abortion rights.
I am very far from being a transally, but I do wonder if it isn't wasting energy (and thus losing attention) if we worry about a thing which in reality will have no real effect.
I also pretty sure that I don't know enough and that there are implications to this of which I'm utterly unaware.