Possibly a lone voice here but from a legal perspective I think I agree the law needs reviewing.
There have been 7 publicised cases of 'sex by deception' in the last decade, all of them biological women who pretended to be men in order to have sex with heterosexual female partners. I think one or two identified themselves (loosely) as trans men. All but one pleaded guilty.
Legally, it would be a lot harder for a trans woman with a penis to do this: if someone saw that they had male genitalia and said 'no I've changed my mind' and sex went ahead anyway then that is straightforward rape, no 'sex by deception' needed.
I don't see how, in law, there is a good way of deciding what is a dealbreaker sufficient to vitiate consent and what is not. The three wealthy male judges in McNally for reasons I couldn't possibly guess at said that
"In reality, some deceptions (such as, for example, in relation to wealth) will obviously not be sufficient to vitiate consent."
But why is that obvious?
So if I say to someone "you say on Tinder that you're earning a six figure salary and I'm only interested in sex with people who are earning that" I might be shallow, but if they turn out to be on benefits, is my consent not vitiated?
If someone holds himself out on Tinder as being single and he turns out to be married and cheating, should that vitiate consent? Because that takes us into disturbing adultery laws.
If not having transitioned is a dealbreaker I think that should be made clear prior to sex. NB - I am NOT talking about rape here but about the specific sex by deception issue whereby sex is entered into with apparent consent, but the consent is vitiated by later discovery of a feature about the person.
I used to work with someone who would get tearful and phone the police about her ex-fiance, because she would never have slept with him if he hadn't promised to marry her, and ultimately he'd never intended to do so. Should he be a) considered a cad of the highest order and disdained, or b) prosecuted under criminal law?
The present state of the law assumes that lesbian sex is so abhorrent that any woman would need to know if her partner weren't a man (one judge in sentencing remarks I now can't find regarded it as a mitigating feature that the defendant was gender questioning rather than seeking lesbian pleasure), but that adultery or lying about STIs are so run-of-the-mill that it's a caveat shaggor situation. It rather strikes me that when we apply 'common sense' we apply common prejudice and that the current status quo only benefits men.