i'm not sure THAT'S the conclusion .
I mean it's not the case that Caster just happens to be a woman who just 'happens' to have high testosterone. There's a REASON Caster has high testosterone.
Here's the actual rules:
www.iaaf.org/news/press-release/eligibility-regulations-for-female-classifica
They have applied the rules ONLY to 400m, 800m, 1500m/mile events. Other events are not affected. So this looks like a 'Caster Semenya rule' and nothing to do with transgender.
This is about intersex athletes. It seems what happens is Caster (and as I understand it, one or more other athletes) have done well at 800m and other events, so they've said 'we can prove that testosterone is advantageous at specifically these events, so we should reduce the level, but only for these events that we have evidence for'. And they have specifically said 'androgen-sensitive'. So you could have XY intersex women with complete androgen insensitivity with normal male testosterone levels competing with no issue.
Clearly there is a question of 'what is a woman' in terms of intersex - is someone with a vagina, raised female, but with internal testes and androgens a woman or not? It's not something the IOC have chosen to answer, but it's obviously that some intersex people, especially in developing countries, may be male in terms of sporting prowess, build, etc., but assigned female at birth.
Now that opens the door for TRAs to a big extent, because if you allow intersex competitors with who have been subject to androgens their whole life, then you open the door to transgender competitors to do the same. Because what's the difference? Are you going to say that this child who may have had ambiguous genitalia and plastic surgery at birth and assigned female but male biology with XY chromosomes and androgen sensitive is allowed to compete but a child who has normal male genitalia but now identifies as a woman is not? It doesn't make sense.
The logical position is that if you have a Y chromosome then you should be excluded from female sport UNLESS you are androgen-insensitive and always have been. This idea of reducing your natural testosterone doesn't make much sense to me - there's a biological REASON why athletes have elevated testosterone, and for me there's a VERY big difference between hyperandrogenic XX and XY with genital abnormalities.
Unfortunately we don't have the details on these athletes biology - if it says "7.1 in every 1000 elite female athletes in our sport have elevated testosterone levels", the question is WHY, and where there are presumably different causes, then HOW elevated are these levels for each cause. Because from what I can see the testosterone level for PCOS, for example, while elevated, would be under 5 nmol/l anyway. So we are talking about something else. What is it?