This is the post where you put your questions Increasinglymiddleaged
Well assuming that there is no level of sexual abuse that can be acceptable Elendon what about when the perpetrator is in fact a woman?
I can't answer that as I don't understand the question.
Firstly why the theoretical statement about "assuming no level of sexual abuse is acceptable". Why would there be any doubt that it is unacceptable?
Secondly the first part of the question bears no relation to the second.
Are you trying to suggest anyone thinks there is an acceptable level if the perpetrator is female? Who has suggested that ? No one here. The criminal justice system certainly does not.
Is it helpful to always put males in the offender role and women in the victim role
Again I don't understand your question. The victim of a crime is the victim; the person who carries out the crime is the offender.
Had the victim been a boy the reports would have said so. Had the offender been a woman the reports would have said so.
(cf (a)the case of historic abuse recently prosecuted where underage boys were being abused by a flasher heterosexual couple having public sex and enticing underage boys to join in and (b) the women who was charged and convicted as part of the Newcastle grooming gang)
Or does this actually have the effect of making it easier for people to blame female victims?
Again I don't understand the question. What is "this" which you think makes it "easier" to blame women?
I disagree with both you and NoLove stating women and men are constantly at risk. This is a meaningless statement. I am no more constantly at risk of being sexually abused than I am of being burgled.
Sexual crimes happen far more frequently to women than men and by far the majority number of perpetrators , regardless of the sex of the victim, will be men. It is no denying there are male victims to say that the majority of victims will be female and the majority of perpetrators will be male.