Could you say who is in the wrong here, and (if you like) why. Thank you very much.
Couple get together, he is 27 and (through shyness) only ever had sex with one woman. She is 37, had lots of boyfriends. They are both sex mad, move in together, and it's a very highly sexual relationship: "at it" every day before and after work, and several times over the weekends.
Joint mortgage, expenses shared, then she gets made redundant and can only get a part time poorly paid shop assistant job, so he partially supports her. They are not married and there are no kids.
When she hits 45 she has some gynae probs then hits menopause. High libido suddenly turns to zero libido. She isn't bothered; he is utterly gutted.
She says: "I don't want sex ever again, but you cannot do it with anyone else." She has always been very possessive, and this does not change.
After 3 years of no sex, he calls for a discussion. He says: "I'm only 38, still extremely highly sexed. Sex means an awful lot to me, but I have had no sex for 3 years and I am not happy to live without sex for the rest of my life. Is there a chance that you may get your libido back, or is there any way you would let me have an affair? If not, I think we will have to split up."
She says, "We can't split up - ever. I cannot support myself on my part time shop job. My share of the equity in this flat (if we sell it) isn't enough to buy even a bedsit. Cannot rent as no landlord will accept my two dogs. Besides, this is my home! I have decorated it and made it beautiful for 13 years and I don't see why I should leave just because I won't let you f__ me."
Friends and family say: "you can't throw her out onto the street just for not giving you sex. There is more to a relationship than sex."
So, stalemate.
In your opinion, who is right and who is wrong?