Why don’t the editors stop this?

[ScaredOfFlying]

I’ve lost count of the number of times I’ve heard “I” used in a TV voiceover when it should have been “me” e.g. “Time for Phil and I to make these househunters see sense”.

Now I see two glaring examples in the captions for Holly Ramsay’s wedding spread in British Vogue (attached).

I’m curious- these programmes and publications have editors and writers. Are they
(a) unaware that it is incorrect
(b) aware but think it’s more authentic to speak in the “voice” of the presenter/article subject?
(c) of the view that this usage is now so widespread that language has evolved and it’s now correct?

It’s the same reason people don’t pronounce the T in Moët. (Also incorrect, also annoying!!)
It's not. People don't say the T in Moët, because they are used to people (including Freddie Mercury) having said it as Mo-ay.
The reason you say the T in Moët is because the name is not of French origin.

*People don't say the T in Moët, because they are used to people (including Freddie Mercury) having said it as Mo-ay.

Yes, I should think many people who were around in the 70s would have heard it first in the song. And I'd have thought Freddie would have known the correct pronunciation.

She's a killer queen
Gunpowder, gelatine
Dynamite with a laser beam...

Well half a dozen people think you are. Including I. 😏

You're very late to this party, aren't you. ☺️
I think i stood well corrected 3 months ago. 🙄

@ PrizedPickledPopcorn -
You would have been told to avoid “I” in general writing - an account of something where every other sentence begins with “I” is simply poor style. But I am amazed and know not what to say about the comments on page one of this thread, most particularly as this is Pedants’ Corner!

Exactly

Grrrr the myself/yourself crap really bugs me 😖

It is right though.

I'm not past retirement age.

Kirstie Allsopp "attended ... Bedales .... After spending time in India teaching English, ..." (Wikipedia).

OP, I know this thread is old but I had to comment when I saw it pop up again!

I think you are correct. Because neither "Phil" nor "I" are the subjects in the sentence.

The subject is "it"... [It is] "[t]ime for Phil and I..."

Therefore "Phil" and "I" are the objects...

Who said a degree in languages was useless? 😂

Edited to say I just realised someone already pointed this out 😂😂