"And they called unto Lot, and said unto him, Where [are] the men which came in to thee this night? bring them out unto us, that we may know them."
The actual Hebrew word used in that sentence is the word "know", quite literally.
However that is sometimes used as a euphemism for sex.
To put that in context though the word appears nearly 1000 times in the Hebrew scriptures.
It's used as a euphemism perhaps a dozen times, let's call that 1%.
So when translating that verse do you use the proper Hebrew translation?
Or do you replace it with a euphemism of that Hebrew word that appears to only have been intended in about 1 in a 100 of that words appearances.
Is it coincidence that a recently edited Catholic Bible, that is not a direct translation anyway, chooses to decide that it knows that in that one sentence the euphemism is meant.
Why not directly translate and let the readers make their own mind up as to what is meant?
The original Hebrew writers obviously trusted their readers enough to use the word "know".
Does the editor of that 1985 Bible claim to know better?