Prh47
The defence case seemed to be that CE described her having sex in a particular (but fairly common way) that implied consent. Other partners later gave evidence of her having sex in a similar way at around the same time.
Is the argument that therefore CE was telling the truth? Was he thought to be lying at the previous trial? Is the idea that as 2 other people also described her doing a similar thing, it would be too much of a coincidence for him to be lying now?
I don't understand why, given the length of time that passed and attempts to pay people for evidence, there wouldn't be suspicion of coroboration?
I am assuming that the point was that enough doubt was introduced that the jury thought there wasn't enough evidence to convict.
The blog linked below argues that this is a very rare case and that it be difficult to introduce sexual history as evidence in a court case. However, looking at what we know of this case, all you need to do is find the right witnesses. The blog argues that people don't know enough about the case to comment and that it is scaremongering to suggest that rape victims won't come forward.
However, I think the reasoning needs to be made clear. To all intents and purposes it does now look as though previous sexual partners can be paid for evidence.
thesecretbarrister.com/2016/10/14/10-myths-busted-about-the-ched-evans-case/