I’ve read some rejections of ‘consent orders’ just wondering if anyone has experience etc on this or knowledge - opinion what is to be expected or what could be rejected - below are some figures what is stated in my ‘information in support of consent order’
Applicant (me) retains the house with child and pays for all mortgage payments , upkeep , bills and insurances etc. On a trigger event either in a position in future to take over the mortgage or sell the property the equity will then after paying out costs and mortgage etc will be divided between former husband and wife 50% each equity.
No pension sharing orders.
Clean break other than me staying in the house with child and child maintenance payment.
How was this decision come to?- between the parties
Property (net of any mortgage): £12,000
Applicant liabilities:
(me) £5,000.
Respondent liabilities £28,000 (this amount is a car finance belongs to my Ex)
Pensions:
(me) £0.
respondent £190,000.00
Income:
(me) £1,800
respondent £2,300
child of family (receives child maintenance through cms)
Any thoughts anyone? Is this ok seems reasonable to not get ‘rejected’