So, he quoted the very specific example of a 60 year old man, saying the increased mortality risk of new strain vs old strain to that particular demographic was 30-40% - expressing this as "13-14 people per 1000 cases will die with new variant, compared to 10 deaths with the old".
What is the current case fatality for over 70s /80s?
Because I think we can all understand why he chose that demographic example and why he expressed in those very specific terms. But to get an idea of the real impact, we need to apply an uplift to those groups who are making up the greatest proportion of deaths already.
Because those numbers will look different.