Please could someone explain more about this?
I'm reading on Sky News:
"A statement from the Department of Health said: "The JCVI has advised the priority should be to give as many people in at-risk groups their first dose, rather than providing the required two doses in as short a time as possible.
"Everyone will still receive their second dose and this will be within 12 weeks of their first. The second dose completes the course and is important for longer term protection."
Source:
news.sky.com/story/covid-19-oxford-astrazeneca-vaccine-approved-for-use-in-uk-12155958
So this vaccine is said to have a 62% efficacy with two full doses and up to 90% with half a dose followed by a full dose which was a random discovery. Is the latter how it was approved for use by the MHRA?
If so why is it recommended to have one full dose asap (presumably it is one full dose) and this is the main focus?
Also if the efficacy is 62%, what does this mean in practice? That it prevents 62% of vaccinated people from getting ill with COVID-19?